I have a copy of a will dated 1743 of a married man, from Oxfordshire, England, which makes no mention of his wife. All his estate is left to his siblings, nephews, servants, etc. They had no children.
His wife's father left a will in 1740 in which he left his daughter a legacy (in trust of her brother) of £100 on the provision that the legacy be "for her sole use and benefit" and in such manner "that her said husband may have nothing to do therewith." So clearly they did not get on well.
His widow went on to remarry within months of his death.
There is no evidence that they divorced.
I find it odd that the husband made no mention of his wife in his will - if only to say she was not entitled to anything. At this time would there have been any legal recourse for her to claim any part of his estate?